Anyhow, for those who believe that Paul was giving a mere suggestion, they must answer this question: “Why would Paul hold the opinion that woman are not to teach or be in authority over men, yet provide in the same passage a theological basis for it? (example of Adam and Eve)

Yep, I agree. As you said, Paul’s use of the Adam/Eve example is *vital* to the proper understanding of this passage. And yes, the larger scope of Paul’s Apostolic authority could be shown from many places (a couple of which I quoted at the end of the post).

But given from what I’ve read from the liberals who do teach that this passage does not give a mandate, I thought it would at least be interesting to post the logical conclusions of taking this as Paul’s opinion, thus all the other places where he says ‘I urge’, ‘I desire’, etc. I was actually surprised at how often Paul says that throughout his epistles. Boy would we have messed up theology if we interpreted the ‘I desire’ as optional!!